(Jan 1, 2017 08:54 AM)Syne Wrote: The difference would seem to be either that the person has already violated the law (thus surrendering some rights) or that they are perfectly capable of giving consent, so lack of objection is tacit consent. A child or passed out person is not capable of giving consent. So how is that "opposite"?
i understand your perspective to a point, however if you define someon as being already guilty and thus the removal of rights then there is no due process and no burdon of guilt.(obvious things im sure your well versed in)
thus
forced compliance is the removal of rights.
the act of demanding someone obey you is the removal of thier right to be free.
i have been trying to thin of someone else that gives a good example without having to fall back to the police shooting somene example but there seems to be the critical deadly force reality.
i am specifically referring to USA police who shoot 'dead' 3 civilians every single day of the year.
the video of the man being shot by the police officer that we previousely discussed is one example of many shootings that happen every day in the usa.
no consent was given.
now if you subscribe to the police officers instructions being not followed...
assuming you think there was any given which it appears there was not.
the civilian was shot because he looked like he was carrying a firearm.. which is legal to do so in most US states.
for example if the police HAD of given instructions or simply asked his name or what he was doing...
simply replying or continuing to walk is surely not
surrendering right to life(act of assisted suicide?)
this is where the act of the officer simply saying something to a civilian removes the right to life of the civilian.
explicitly...
1 police officer says who are you to person walking
person walking has shiny cigarette box in their hand which looks like a firearm
2 person walking turns around to look at police officer.
3 police officer shoots person
at what point has the person given consent to have their right to life removed ?
keen to hear your thoughts around this...
Quote:No legal system can "prove" guilt prior to the necessity of detaining suspected criminals. But as long as a stable legal system exists, they are guaranteed due process before any permanent loss of rights.
proof of guilt after the fact of removing the rights as a burdon to be unreasonable....
proof or reasonable suspiscion i beleive is the legal frame work, and this is my question where deadly force is used.
Quote:What do you mean by, "what difference is a gun sale to a suicide drug sale?" And how do you think suicide is related to gun laws?
How would suicide be morally superior to self-defense? All new firearms come with a user manual that does warn about possible injury or death.
"what do i mean"
selling someone a gun is selling someone a method of killing someone.
that is what firearm sales are all about in the USA generally speaking.
hand guns are nto made for sporting purposes and if they were then compulsory club membership just like compulsory vehicle insurance would be done already.
its about killing
selling a gun is about providing someone with the means to take a life.
pure and simple.
thus
selling a drug that is designed for suicide to a terminally ill person is quite comparible considerng death is certain. the drug simply speeds it up.
probably ethically equvilent to defending yourself with a firearm against an unarmed intruder.
is it classed as "assisted suicide" if the doctor sells the terminally ill patient a drug designed to kill them ?
keeping in mind both using the gun to kill someone and using the drug as self administered are both without the direct involvement of the person providign the means.
i hope that clarifys my question