Research Did they just break quantum physics?

[C C]

Violation of Bell inequality with unentangled photons
https://www.science.org/doi/10.1126/sciadv.adr1794

ABSTRACT: Violation of local realism via Bell inequality—a profound and counterintuitive manifestation of quantum theory that conflicts with the prediction of local realism—is viewed to be intimately linked with quantum entanglement. Experimental demonstrations of such a phenomenon using quantum entangled states are among the landmark experiments of modern physics and paved the way for quantum technology.

Here, we report the violation of the Bell inequality that cannot be described by quantum entanglement in the system but arises from quantum indistinguishability by path identity, shown by the multiphoton frustrated interference. By analyzing the measurement of four-photon frustrated interference within the standard Bell-test formalism, we find a violation of Bell inequality by more than four SDs.

Our work establishes a connection between quantum correlation and quantum indistinguishability, providing insights into the fundamental origin of the counterintuitive characteristics observed in quantum physics... (MORE - details)

Did they just break quantum physics? (Hossenfelder) ... https://youtu.be/QBO531i5POM

https://www.youtube-nocookie.com/embed/QBO531i5POM

[Syne]

Considering the track record of "physic breaking" claims, I won't hold my breath.

[confused2]

Possibly something like the Aharonov–Bohm effect but with uncharged particles? I'd guess the precise layout of things would affect the effect.

Potentials vs. fields
It is generally argued that the Aharonov–Bohm effect illustrates the physicality of electromagnetic potentials, Φ and A, in quantum mechanics. Classically it was possible to argue that only the electromagnetic fields are physical, while the electromagnetic potentials are purely mathematical constructs, that due to gauge freedom are not even unique for a given electromagnetic field.

However, Vaidman has challenged this interpretation by showing that the Aharonov–Bohm effect can be explained without the use of potentials so long as one gives a full quantum mechanical treatment to the source charges that produce the electromagnetic field.[12] According to this view, the potential in quantum mechanics is just as physical (or non-physical) as it was classically. Aharonov, Cohen, and Rohrlich responded that the effect may be due to a local gauge potential or due to non-local gauge-invariant fields.[13]

???? I know nothing.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aharonov%E...ohm_effect